I think this is such a good question and something I have often wondered about. I think I remember reading or hearing somewhere that Mafalda (is this the same Mafalda Hermione impersonates in DH?) knew of the magic because the charm for detecting underage sorcery just showed if magic was used near some one who is underage, not the actual person who cast the spell. It was sort of the honor system in magical households where wizards who had come of age could obviously do magic.

As for Dobby getting past the Fidelius charm. This may be a stretch but, if a house elf in Hogwarts heard Dumbledore talking about where Harry was then maybe that house elf would be a secret keeper and if Dobby talked to that house elf then he would be a secret keeper too. House elves probably know and see way more then people give them credit for just like the staff in manors and mansions in old English novels. The maids and staff knew and saw everything they were just really loyal usually and didn't talk to people outside. House elves are bound to their families and so have a sort of forced loyalty but they also probably know a ton of things. Dobby borke his loyalty to the Malfoys by trying to protect Harry and could have done the same thing and told another house elf who also wanted to make sure Harry was safe.

The most visible difference between house elf magic and wizarding magic is that house elf magic doesn't require a wand. Both have some kind of inner power but wizards need to channel it into one area in order to perform spells.

Of course, there is also wandless magic, but as JK said it is usually a lot harder to control and only occurs when the wizard or witch is experiencing strong emotions of some sort. We saw that many times in the books, the most famous (and funniest) one probably being the one concerning Aunt Marge in PoA.

I think house elf magic is more powerful than Wizard/Witch magic.
As we see in the deathly hallows Dobby can apparate in and out of The Malfoys cellar and we also see Kreacher apparate out of the cave where Voldemort hid the locket horcurux.
I think that House Elf magic can bend the rules to get what needs to be done, done. Like, if they get ordered to do something, even if it is impossible they can do it because their magic is so powerful. Also (correct me if im wrong) but I dont think The Dursleys Home is under the fidelius charm. If it was then the weasleys couldn't have used the flue network to get to the durlseys and no one would be even be able to see the house!
As for Mafalda Hopkirk I dont think Dobby did anything to her. I believe it is just the way the trace works, they can detect magic in the home of an under age wizard but they cant know who did the magic, so I think thats what happend there.
Love the show guys! Your AMAZING! Please read this out!
thanx :)

I don't kow how Dobby got in to see Harry, but as to his magic fooling Mafalda Hopkirk, I think the ministry knew that there are no other magical people in the area (not including squibs) so they didn't look that closely into the magic, immediantly assuming only Harry could have done it.

I apologize for any incorrect grammar in my last entry; I was in a hurry.

Well, I had this idea that House-elf magic is like a foreign language compared to Wizard magic. In real life, if someone is talking in a language you don't speak, you are still aware that they are speaking, even if you don't understand the words.
Now, in the Wizarding World, the Ministry would be able to "hear" magic such as when they did in Chapter 2 of Chamber of Secrets, but there would be no way to clarify what "language" it was in, wizard magic or House-elf magic.
And as to why House-elves can Apparate where wizards can't, my theory fits in perfectly (at least in my opinion). You can translate almost anything from one language to another, but there is always a word or phrase that is simply unique to its original language and can't be accurately translated. So, the Anti-Apparition Charm placed on Hogwarts/other areas is purely wizard magic, if attempted to translate it into House-elf magic, it'll be complete gibberish and the charm would have no effect.
Lastly, House-elves don't use or have wands. If my theory is correct, then this would be because wizard magic has an extra letter in its alphabet that House-elf magic does not. That letter would be equivalent to the use of a wand. House-elf magic simply does not need that letter for its language to function properly.

As ZeoRegrediens wrote there is not a fidelius charm in this case.

Harry's mother blood protect him from being hurt. All people know's where Harry is, the matter is they can't touch him.

About magic differences I think the most similar example is with animal and human senses. For instances, a dog can hear things human we can't, and humans see colours that some animals don't. Lot of animals can see but they see different. Same with magic.

Sorry for my bad English.

I think that while elf magic is different from wizard magic, the fooling of Mafalda is less about superior magic but more about inferior treatment of house elves. Since many wizards don't consider house elves to be equals with wizards, the Ministry of Magic probably casts the trace quite lazily, not bothering to differentiate between wizard and elf magic because the assumption is that wizards are the most magical, and other creatures "don't count." It probably would have been the same if Dobby had been a goblin, a centaur, or anything else.

I think that Elves have a difference in wizard magic because they are different beings. I think that they hold a slightly different type of "magic" (for example in deathly hallows with dobby in the basement) Elves don't need wands because they hold the magic within themselves. Whereas wizards need something to hold the magic and sort of contain it for them (i.e. their wands) Its also possible that Elves are just taking in the magic around them like a vaccuum... maybe they possibly take the "magic" in the air to create spells like the whole thing with wands and creating water from using the particles in the air.

Is elfish magic a more primative, for want of a better word, magic than wizard magic? It's the only way I can think that certain types of elfish magic (ie, Apparation) are not affected by wizards' magic (anti-Apparation charms). I like the comparison to different languages, but I would also say it could be compared like how human communicate and how animals communicate. However, wizards underestimate elfish magic.

As other commentors have alluded to, I think that House-elf magic is innate, as opposed to much of wizard magic which requires a wand. Perhaps as others have suggested, the more magically "pure" creatures such as house elves or goblins are still fully (or more fully) connected to their innate magic and therefore do not require objects to channel that magic through YET many of the magical creatures desire to use wands. Griphook speaks for the goblins in their distrust or anomosity towards wizards who prohibit them to use wands. So in my mind this raises a different issue, what is it about wands that makes magic different than the sort of magic that house-elves and gobins possess? Does the use of wands allow for magical spells/charms such as the students learn at Hogwarts? And other creatures are unable to preform such things because of their innate sort of magic? Could Dobby preform charms or other spells such as transfiguration or Hermonie's canaries (or some similar sort of thing) without the use of a wand? I would suspect that in his household duties, he could summon things, preform cleaning spells, and obviously preform hover charms. But think of cooking. Could he charm a chicken into chicken soup? COuld he charm a pumpkin into pumpkin juice? Is it within his innate abilities to transfigure bark or other sub-standard food into better meals as Hermionie does in Book 7? Is his charmwork or transfiguration limited because he is a creature with innate magic? Does the possession and mastery of a wand allow for a broader array of magical ability? Could Dobby kill someone with his innate magic? Do more "serious" (for lack of a better word) forms of magic require a wand?

Many have commented that house elf magic is more powerful than wizard magic. I understand where this sentiment comes from because an object is not required but I think that it is not that simple. (Outside of the possibility that we as readers were not exposed to the entire repetorie of house elf or goblin magic) While I love Dobby I don't think his magic is more powerful than Dumbledore's or VOldemort's, or even some other less talented/powerful wizards. House elves certainly possess an important and powerful sort of magic but in a comparison with the capacity of human magic, I would not agree that it is more powerful, it is simply different. The innateness of their ability to preform incantations, if we can think of it that way, or to make things they wish to happen, happen is certainly powerful but different from wizard magic.

In response to a previous comment, I think that Goblin magic is even different from House elf magic. From the series, we know that Goblins create special objects, imbibe them with special magic, preform tasks in Gringotts and have immense senses of about the qualities of physical objects. We are not privy to the details of these processes (which would be wonderful to explore) but I think that these basic distinctions between the work of House-elves and the work of Goblins makes for the distinction in their type of magic.
This is the very sort of distinction or issue that Hermonie and others see in the seperation of magical creatures, or the disjointedness of magical beings. As Rowling created this world, certain creatures preform certain functions and their magic reflects those sorts of functions. However, magical humans seem to have a broader array of magic at their disposal. Perhaps that has to do with more highly functioning brains that humans possess but magical humans are still limited (expect for powerful/unexpected wandless magic) to preforming magic with a wand. The circumstances surrounding wands and their inherent magic is mysterious, as Ollivander alwayes notes, so does the wand as a physical and magical object itself entail higher levels or more broad and far-reaching sorts of magic? Goblins desire wands. What would their magic be like if they could use them? And if humans suddenly stopped using wands and concentrated on reviving or enhancing their innate magic, how would that change wizard magic?

There is always a magicness about magic as theGreatOm suggests above. All magic has at least some similar qualities but there are differences in the use, preformance, intention, intensity, etc. of magic used by different sorts of beings and even different people, for instance, in the case of magical humans. Dumbledore and VOldemort are undoubtedly more skilled in the use and understanding of magic than your normal everyday wizard. Is their use of a wand different? Are they more in tune with their innate magic and can therefore preform wandless magic better and with more control. Another very intriguing spin off of this discussion that I have consistently thought about while listening to these podcasts is how is magic connected to the brain versus the soul? This can be a scientific, empirical question or deeply philosophical. Does the soul give the ability to preform magic or the brain? DOes the brain control the functioning of magical spells or does the soul? I think there could be arguments for both sides of those coins. Or is it something completely different?

I am not sure if this was addressed in any of the previous comments, but in the podcast there was the topic about how Harry ended up getting the letter from Mafalda even though he did not perform the hovering charm. My initial thought about why this occurred was that house elves are usually owned by a certain wizarding family, and they have to obey their rules and do as they are told. In Dobby's case, he went against the Malfoys and went to Privet Drive without notifiying his owners. I think this might have played an important role in the outcome of the hovering charm issue. Maybe when a house elf is travelling with his "family", the magic is accounted for as house elf magic. Maybe if the elf were to be travelling, it would have to be on the orders of his or her owner, and would therefore be kept accounted for. In Dobby's case, the Malfoys were not aware of his little adventure to Harry, so the Malfoys and probably the Ministry of Magic as well, were not able to say that they magic was performed by a house elf because there should not have been an elf at Harrys. Therefore, the Ministry had no choice but to assume that the magic was performed by the only magical person known to live at number 4, that being Harry.

I think that house elves are empowered by magic. His ability to enter Hogwarts and the Malfoy's dungeon is because, as the book reveals, the power of a house elf's master's order is the highest order. At this point Dobby is not under orders. However, his magic is a higher order of magic that can also be fuelled by love and intention. Thus, this would allow Dobby to enter the Fidelius Charm.

But then, you may ask, couldn't Voldemort just have sent a house elf in to find Harry? First of all, we know Voldemort can and has used house elves to do his bidding. However, he also disregards them as beings with any value. I think that to enter the Fidelius Charm without it having been broken, and without being a Secret Keeper, is the issue. I believe Dobby can enter because of his intentions which are good and true and, in essence, would strengthen the charm because he is trying to preserve HArry's life. Does love let him enter?

The main reason the Dobby's magic is not noticed by Mafalda Hopkirk's office and noted in her letter is because, as seen throughout the series, house elves are dismissed in general. They are not noticed because they are seen as insignificant, as is their magic. The Ministry, scarily like Voldemort, do not value these creatures (as can be seen in the woods after the Quidditch World Cup) Furthermore, because they are always acting on their master's orders, their magic could be seen as an extension of their master's magic, another reason that Dobby's magic may not have been picked up at Privet Drive or Hogwarts.

I agree that unless J.K Rowling comes out and gives the answer herself that anything we say is definitely going to be nothing but blind speculation. My personal thought on this is that maybe because house elves are magical creatures and humans are not that it may be that house elves are more "in tune" with nature then humans are which could possibly put them more in touch with magic.Yes wizards and witches can perform magic without a wand, but it seems to take alot more energy. House elves on the other hand, don't seem to have a problem with this (like when Dobby was able to repel Lucius Malfoy away from Harry for example). That is where I think the difference could possibly lie.

I honestly think that house elf magic is different than human magic because of the simple fact that house elves are different than humans. Different creatures in the magical world (humans, unicorns, dementors, house elves etc) and humans in the muggle world (humans, lions, kangaroos, ants etc) all have different abilities, different strengths and different weaknesses. We are all wonderfully different from one another, and I think in the magical world different beings manifest magic in different ways. I agree with the sense that house elf magic may be more innate, in the sense that if they are serving a wizarding family, they are unable to attend "Hogwarts for Elves." They don't go through classes to learn charms, transfiguration, appartition, however they are readily able to do it. I really just think the difference in magic comes from the difference in who is performing the magic.

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